TN MRB MOCK TEST 7

 TN MRB MOCK TEST - 7


100 QnA



Get FULL EBOOK AND PREVIOUS TEST SERIES AND MOCKS AT https://telegram.me/Abins_007


1. Most radiosensitive phase of cell cycle:

A. G0

B. G1

C. S

D. M

2. Enzyme deficient in G6PD deficiency:

A. Hexokinase

B. Pyruvate kinase

C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

D. Lactate dehydrogenase

3. Nerve supplying coracobrachialis:

A. Axillary

B. Radial

C. Musculocutaneous

D. Median

4. Most common mutation in colorectal carcinoma:

A. BRCA

B. APC

C. p53

D. KRAS

5. Drug causing aplastic anemia:

A. Paracetamol

B. Chloramphenicol

C. Penicillin

D. Ciprofloxacin

6. First antibody formed in primary immune response:

A. IgA

B. IgG

C. IgM

D. IgE

7. Layer of epidermis responsible for waterproofing:

A. Basale

B. Spinosum

C. Granulosum

D. Lucidum

8. Organ most affected by hypoxia:

A. Liver

B. Kidney

C. Brain

D. Muscle

9. Best test for diagnosing Cushing syndrome:

A. ACTH level

B. Overnight dexamethasone suppression

C. CT adrenal

D. MRI pituitary

10. Drug causing torsades de pointes:

A. Lidocaine

B. Amiodarone

C. Sotalol

D. Digoxin

11. Nerve injured in surgical neck fracture of humerus:

A. Radial

B. Median

C. Axillary

D. Ulnar

12. Most common cause of hemolytic disease of newborn:

A. ABO incompatibility

B. Rh incompatibility

C. G6PD deficiency

D. Hereditary spherocytosis

13. Blue bloater is seen in:

A. Emphysema

B. Chronic bronchitis

C. Pulmonary embolism

D. Asthma

14. Hormone responsible for milk ejection:

A. Prolactin

B. Estrogen

C. Oxytocin

D. Progesterone

15. Most common site of subarachnoid hemorrhage aneurysm:

A. MCA

B. ACA

C. PCom

D. ICA

16. Drug causing gingival hyperplasia:

A. Valproate

B. Phenytoin

C. Carbamazepine

D. Phenobarbitone

17. Structure affected first in glaucoma:

A. Retina

B. Optic nerve head

C. Lens

D. Cornea

18. Most common cause of acute pancreatitis:

A. Alcohol

B. Gallstones

C. Drugs

D. Trauma

19. Vitamin deficiency causing scurvy:

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B1

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin D

20. Most common organism causing pneumonia in elderly:

A. Mycoplasma

B. Klebsiella

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

D. Legionella

21. Drug of choice for eclampsia:

A. Diazepam

B. Phenytoin

C. Magnesium sulfate

D. Labetalol

22. Most common congenital heart disease:

A. ASD

B. VSD

C. PDA

D. TOF

23. Best marker of renal function:

A. Serum urea

B. Serum creatinine

C. GFR

D. Urine output

24. Nerve supplying diaphragm:

A. Vagus

B. Intercostal

C. Phrenic

D. Accessory

25. Most common cause of upper GI bleed:

A. Esophageal varices

B. Mallory-Weiss tear

C. Peptic ulcer disease

D. Gastritis

26. Drug causing methemoglobinemia:

A. Bupivacaine

B. Prilocaine

C. Ropivacaine

D. Lidocaine

27. Best investigation for pulmonary embolism:

A. Chest X-ray

B. ECG

C. CT pulmonary angiography

D. D-dimer

28. Mechanism of action of benzodiazepines:

A. Increase GABA release

B. Block NMDA receptor

C. Increase frequency of Cl⁻ channel opening

D. Direct Cl⁻ channel opening

29. Commonest cause of secondary hypertension:

A. Pheochromocytoma

B. Renal artery stenosis

C. Cushing syndrome

D. Primary aldosteronism

30. First cranial nerve affected in cavernous sinus thrombosis:

A. CN II

B. CN III

C. CN IV

D. CN VI

31. Nerve injured in Erb palsy:

A. C5–C6

B. C6–C7

C. C8–T1

D. T1–T2

32. Most common cause of DIC:

A. Trauma

B. Malignancy

C. Sepsis

D. Snake bite

33. Hormone secreted by zona glomerulosa:

A. Cortisol

B. Aldosterone

C. Androgens

D. Estrogen

34. Best screening test for cervical cancer:

A. HPV DNA

B. Pap smear

C. VIA

D. Colposcopy

35. Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults:

A. Minimal change disease

B. FSGS

C. Membranous nephropathy

D. MPGN

36. Most common type of renal stone:

A. Uric acid

B. Cystine

C. Calcium oxalate

D. Struvite

37. Structure pierced during lumbar puncture:

A. Posterior longitudinal ligament

B. Ligamentum flavum

C. Anterior longitudinal ligament

D. Intervertebral disc

38. Drug causing optic neuritis:

A. Isoniazid

B. Rifampicin

C. Ethambutol

D. Pyrazinamide

39. Most common cause of sudden cardiac death:

A. Cardiomyopathy

B. Valvular disease

C. Arrhythmia

D. Myocarditis

40. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy:

A. Ovary

B. Isthmus

C. Ampulla

D. Cervix

41. Antidote for heparin:

A. Vitamin K

B. Protamine sulfate

C. PCC

D. FFP

42. Most common nerve injured in thyroid surgery:

A. Vagus

B. Hypoglossal

C. Recurrent laryngeal

D. Glossopharyngeal

43. Drug causing lupus-like syndrome:

A. Methyldopa

B. Hydralazine

C. Propranolol

D. Enalapril

44. Most common primary brain tumor in adults:

A. Astrocytoma

B. Glioblastoma

C. Meningioma

D. Oligodendroglioma

45. Reflex responsible for bradycardia during eye surgery:

A. Vagal

B. Carotid sinus

C. Oculocardiac

D. Bezold-Jarisch

46. Most common cause of facial nerve palsy:

A. Trauma

B. Infection

C. Idiopathic

D. Tumor

47. Drug of choice for anaphylaxis:

A. Hydrocortisone

B. Antihistamine

C. Adrenaline

D. Dopamine

48. Best indicator of chronic glycemic control:

A. Fasting glucose

B. Post-prandial glucose

C. HbA1c

D. OGTT

49. Most common cause of acute liver failure in India:

A. Alcohol

B. Hepatitis B

C. Hepatitis E

D. Paracetamol

50. Drug causing grey baby syndrome:

A. Tetracycline

B. Chloramphenicol

C. Sulfonamide

D. Gentamicin

51. Most common site of spinal TB:

A. Cervical

B. Thoracic

C. Lumbar

D. Sacral

52. Best test for myasthenia gravis:

A. CT chest

B. Edrophonium test

C. Anti-ACh receptor antibodies

D. EMG

53. Earliest ECG change in hyperkalemia:

A. Prolonged PR

B. Peaked T wave

C. Widened QRS

D. Sine wave

54. Most common cause of iron deficiency anemia:

A. Dietary deficiency

B. Malabsorption

C. Blood loss

D. Hemolysis

55. Structure responsible for accommodation:

A. Cornea

B. Retina

C. Lens

D. Iris

56. Most common cause of obstructive jaundice:

A. Pancreatic cancer

B. Gallstones

C. Cholangiocarcinoma

D. Stricture

57. Drug of choice for acute gout:

A. Allopurinol

B. Febuxostat

C. Colchicine

D. Probenecid

58. Most common cause of neonatal jaundice:

A. Hemolysis

B. Breast milk jaundice

C. Physiological jaundice

D. Sepsis

59. Nerve injured in wrist drop:

A. Median

B. Ulnar

C. Radial

D. Axillary

60. Most common cause of portal hypertension:

A. Portal vein thrombosis

B. Cirrhosis

C. Budd-Chiari syndrome

D. Right heart failure

61. Most common arrhythmia post-MI:

A. Atrial fibrillation

B. Ventricular fibrillation

C. Ventricular tachycardia

D. Sinus tachycardia

62. Drug used in malignant hyperthermia:

A. Bromocriptine

B. Dantrolene

C. Diazepam

D. Propranolol

63. Structure forming posterior boundary of adductor canal:

A. Sartorius

B. Vastus medialis

C. Adductor longus

D. Adductor magnus

64. Best marker of myocardial injury:

A. CK-MB

B. Troponin I

C. LDH

D. AST

65. Nerve supplying deltoid muscle:

A. Radial

B. Axillary

C. Musculocutaneous

D. Median

66. Most common primary immunodeficiency:

A. SCID

B. IgA deficiency

C. CGD

D. DiGeorge syndrome

67. Best indicator of tissue perfusion:

A. BP

B. CVP

C. Serum lactate

D. Pulse rate

68. Drug causing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus:

A. Desmopressin

B. Carbamazepine

C. Lithium

D. Furosemide

69. Most common cause of appendicitis:

A. Fecolith

B. Parasite

C. Tumor

D. Lymphoid hyperplasia

70. Structure injured in Colles fracture:

A. Ulna

B. Scaphoid

C. Distal radius

D. Lunate

71. Hormone increased in SIADH:

A. Aldosterone

B. ADH

C. Cortisol

D. Renin

72. Drug causing pulmonary fibrosis:

A. Methotrexate

B. Amiodarone

C. Cyclophosphamide

D. Cisplatin

73. Reflex arc of knee jerk:

A. L2–L3

B. L3–L4

C. L4–L5

D. L5–S1

74. Best test for pheochromocytoma:

A. CT scan

B. MRI

C. Plasma free metanephrines

D. Urinary VMA

75. Most common site of meningioma:

A. Falx

B. Convexity

C. Sphenoid wing

D. Olfactory groove

76. Drug causing Stevens-Johnson syndrome:

A. Paracetamol

B. Sulfonamides

C. Erythromycin

D. Penicillin

77. Most common cause of pericardial effusion in India:

A. Malignancy

B. Viral

C. Tuberculosis

D. Uremia

78. Nerve injured in claw hand:

A. Median

B. Radial

C. Ulnar

D. Axillary

79. Best indicator of adequacy of ventilation:

A. SpO₂

B. Respiratory rate

C. ETCO₂

D. BP

80. Most common site of acoustic neuroma:

A. Cochlea

B. Vestibular nerve

C. Facial nerve

D. Trigeminal nerve

81. Most common cause of secondary postpartum hemorrhage:

A. Atony

B. Retained products

C. Uterine rupture

D. Coagulopathy

82. Nerve supplying cornea:

A. Maxillary

B. Mandibular

C. Ophthalmic

D. Facial

83. Drug causing SIADH:

A. Furosemide

B. Lithium

C. Carbamazepine

D. Mannitol

84. Most common cause of hemoptysis:

A. TB

B. Lung cancer

C. Bronchiectasis

D. Pneumonia

85. Earliest sign of raised ICP:

A. Vomiting

B. Headache

C. Papilledema

D. Altered sensorium

86. Most common cause of hypopituitarism:

A. Trauma

B. Tumor

C. Infection

D. Radiation

87. Drug used for RSI:

A. Rocuronium

B. Atracurium

C. Succinylcholine

D. Vecuronium

88. Most common cause of neonatal sepsis:

A. E. coli

B. Group B streptococcus

C. Staphylococcus

D. Klebsiella

89. Best screening test for diabetes:

A. Fasting glucose

B. Random glucose

C. HbA1c

D. OGTT

90. Mechanism of action of aspirin:

A. Reversible COX inhibition

B. Irreversible COX inhibition

C. LOX inhibition

D. TXA₂ agonism

91. Structure damaged in Bell palsy:

A. Trigeminal nerve

B. Facial nerve

C. Hypoglossal nerve

D. Vagus nerve

92. Most common cause of metabolic acidosis with high anion gap:

A. Diarrhea

B. Vomiting

C. DKA

D. RTA

93. Drug of choice for status epilepticus:

A. Phenytoin

B. Diazepam

C. Levetiracetam

D. Phenobarbitone

94. Most common cause of renal cortical necrosis:

A. Sepsis

B. Obstetric complications

C. Trauma

D. Burns

95. Structure forming roof of carpal tunnel:

A. Palmar aponeurosis

B. Flexor retinaculum

C. Transverse carpal ligament

D. Both B and C

96. Most common site of basal cell carcinoma:

A. Trunk

B. Lower limb

C. Face

D. Scalp

97. Drug causing red man syndrome:

A. Linezolid

B. Vancomycin

C. Teicoplanin

D. Cefepime

98. Best indicator of brain death:

A. EEG

B. CT scan

C. Apnea test

D. GCS

99. Most common cause of sudden infant death syndrome:

A. Aspiration

B. Infection

C. Unknown

D. Congenital heart disease

100. Most common nerve injured in posterior hip dislocation:

A. Femoral

B. Obturator

C. Sciatic

D. Lateral femoral cutaneous


ANSWER KEY 

D

C

C

B

B

C

C

C

B

C

C

A

B

C

C

B

B

B

C

C

C

B

C

C

C

B

C

C

B

D

A

C

B

B

C

C

B

C

C

C

B

C

B

C

C

C

C

C

D

B

B

C

B

C

C

B

C

C

C

B

B

B

D

B

B

B

C

C

A

C

B

B

B

C

B

B

C

C

C

B

B

C

C

C

B

B

C

B

A

B

B

C

B

B

D

C

B

C

C

C


Comments

Post a Comment

Popular posts from this blog

TN MRB MOCK TEST - 6

Image
TN MRB MOCK TEST - 6  100 QnA Get FULL EBOOK AND PREVIOUS TEST SERIES AND MOCKS AT https://telegram.me/Abins_007 1. Most common cause of failure of spinal anesthesia is: A. Wrong drug B. Low dose C. Wrong space D. Hypotension 2. Drug of choice for cyanide poisoning is: A. Hydroxocobalamin B. Naloxone C. Atropine D. Pralidoxime 3. Which nerve is spared in adductor canal block? A. Saphenous B. Vastus medialis C. Femoral motor nerve D. Medial femoral cutaneous 4. Earliest ECG change in hyperkalemia: A. Prolonged QT B. Peaked T wave C. Widened QRS D. ST depression 5. Site of action of furosemide: A. PCT B. DCT C. Thick ascending limb D. Collecting duct 6. Most radiosensitive cell: A. Muscle B. Neuron C. Lymphocyte D. Hepatocyte 7. Antidote for heparin: A. Vitamin K B. Protamine C. PCC D. FFP 8. Most common nerve injured in posterior hip dislocation: A. Femoral B. Obturator C. Sciatic D. Lateral femoral cutaneous 9. Blue bloater refers to: A. Emphysema B. Pulmonary embolism C. Chronic b...
Read more

TN MRB FORENSIC MEDICINE Model test 20

Image
  FORENSIC MEDICINE – 50 MCQs  Model test 20 To get EBook and join tests, text me at https://telegram.me/Abins_007 Q1. Lucid interval is classically seen in which intracranial hemorrhage? A. Subdural hematoma B. Extradural hematoma C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Intracerebral hemorrhage Q2. The coup–contrecoup injury mechanism is best explained by: A. Acceleration injury B. Deceleration injury C. Rotational injury D. Penetrating injury Q3. Pugilistic attitude in a burned body is due to: A. Coagulation necrosis of skin B. Heat stiffening of muscles C. Rigor mortis D. Cadaveric spasm Q4. Which finding confirms ante-mortem burns ? A. Cherry red lividity B. Heat ruptures C. Line of redness D. Epidural heat hematoma Q5. Most reliable sign of death due to drowning: A. Froth in nostrils B. Washerwoman changes C. Diatoms in bone marrow D. Lung edema Q6. Gettler test is used to differentiate: A. Hanging vs strangulation B. Freshwater vs seawater dr...
Read more